Asked by Carabritt7, , • Tue Aug 13, 2013
We had a spousal agreement staying that she needed to pay 1/2 mortgage until house was sold; verbally told her to stop paying because the house wasn't selling and I didn't want it to sit on the market unsold. Now, I am remarried and I would like to sell the house, we are looking at selling at 100,000 less than what we paid for it due to the current market value (unfortunately). My question is, since my ex spouse is still on tr lease, is she responsible for half of the loss? Thank you in advance.
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