I believe she should have disclosed this information to you however I wouldn't say that necessarily being dishonest. She wasn't holding an intermediately status. What difference would it of made? An offer is an offer either your clients wish to sell their estate or they don't. I can understand why should we pay the buyer to buy the house however yet she did do her job regardless of her family or personal ties. I have boughten numerous estates on my own and every single time I've made commission off my own sales.
She should have disclosed it that is all I can say.
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I agree with you, lulu21498. It created an immediate distrust & that's why she should not have done that. You had the NORMAL reaction in this case. It's always best to be honest & you would have appreciated that much more. Good luck with your deal.
Thank you so much for your replies. I agree that if she does the work that she deserves the commission. My thoughts went more in the direction of "if she is deceitful (maybe a bit harsh of a word) then what else is she being that way about". That is all.
There may not be anything wrong with it in CA but I think there is here in Texas. We walk a fine line as Realtors & this isn't the way to do business. I hope everyone understands this agent's actions are not the standard we try to uphold. Maybe she's not obligated to disclose this in Florida......I'm curious now. What is the standard of practice in Florida? Anybody know?
didn't mean to overreact;
it does seem as though she was trying to sneak that through;
although there is nothing wrong with it, and she is entitled to her commission.
On the other hand; how many people would want her to take a reduced commission;
she had to do the same amount of work!
It just seems like everyone wants a piece of us: We get a lot a questions here on Trulia about taking reduced comm and even working for free.
Not sure the rules in Fla, but here in Texas we are required to disclose all familial relationships with the principals to the transaction....that's part of being honest. You asked & she had to tell anyway. It should have been disclosed, but that doesn't mean she shouldn't be afforded the same consideration of being paid to negotiate the transaction. She could have chosen to be both buyer & agent I suppose. Would you as seller have done things differently? Maybe. Buyer/agent probably would too in hindsight. If you think you've been wronged I suggest contacting your state's real estate commission to discuss it further.
In Texas, the agent must disclose this relationship. As far as the commission goes, if she is doing the work of representing her Buyer then she is earning the commission that the Listing agent has agreed to pay to a selling (buyer's) agent.
Sorry if I got you a bit up in arms Mr. Thomas. That was not my intention. We discovered that she (the buyers agent) was actually married to the buyer and they were putting only his name on the offer so that she would be able to get the commission on the sale. She admitted this when we asked her why both she and the buyer had the same last name. The issue that I had was that now I am basically paying her the 3% of the price of my home to her to buy my house. It just didn't seem right to me and I wanted to know what the rules of the real estate world (ethically?) were. I am not after anything, just information. I would think that that is something that I might take into consideration when negotiating the price. If I am wrong than maybe I can find a bit more comfort in this deal.
Excuse me, I'm missing something here;
If you know that she is related to the Agent, why are you worried that Disclose it?
What does her relationship affect in your Selling the house?
This is not a Capital sin: Particularly, when, if push came to shove, you would have to admit that you knew it!
Are you just looking for something, anything?