purchased home back in 08/11 with now ex fiance, its in his name only, now what?

Asked by Amber Nunez, Riverside County, CA Wed Jun 20, 2012

Help the community by answering this question:

+ web reference
Web reference:


Harold Sharpe, Agent, LAKE HAVASU CITY, AZ
Tue Jun 26, 2012
I am guessing in his name only means mortgage and title all in his name.
If this is the case, the home is his.
If you feel there are extenuating circumstances, contact a lawyer.

Harold Sharpe - Broker
So Cal Homes Realty
(951) 821-8211
harold@homes-riverside.com http://www.homes-riverside.com
California Department of Real Estate Broker License # 01312992
0 votes
Jory Blake, Agent, Norco, CA
Thu Jun 21, 2012
Depending on what he wants to do, you can either (1)remain as tenant and make the monthly payment on his behalf.(2) Ask him to sell to you for an agreed price , which requires you qualify on your own or with other persons(3) Sell the home and go your separate ways (4) Abandoned ship ( Not recommended).

The liability remains mostly with him ( Mortgage,Credit ,Taxes,Etc).

Since you are most likely not upside down on your home, you have many choices. Please figure the cost to sale at around 7-8%.

Call or write anytime.....

Jory Blake
Web Reference:  http://www.JORYBLAKE.com
0 votes
Robert Spino…, Mortgage Broker Or Lender, Mill Valley, CA
Wed Jun 20, 2012

This depends on two things:
1) Who was/is on the title of the home?
2) Who was/is on the mortgage that encumbers the title?

What happens next depends on the answers to these two. If you'd like to discuss more, just get in touch and I can help you figure it out.

Rob Spinosa
0 votes
well he kept all the paperwork on the mortgage
but i believe it is just his name on the title / mortgage
the only thing i had to do was write a letter to our lender stating that my income was going to be used to pay for the home
Flag Thu Jun 21, 2012
Search Advice
Ask our community a question
Home Buying in Banning Zip Codes

Email me when…

Learn more