Asked by Nikita1963, Brandon, FL • Thu Nov 18, 2010
my house is a short-sale @233,500. 1st mort. 165000 payoff till nov.29 then other cost in fees 24147.00,7005.00 closing cost of buyer, taxes4675.07(highside) = 32672.93 but because she is buffering she has 169845.57 for first payoff so it all equals O? If time of closing the first is actually 165000. where does the remainder of money go? She is offering 27827.36 to 2nd mort. and not what the whole difference? what happens to the over buffered money? Will 2 get more because 27827.36 is an estimated number? I want them to recieve all over funds, title person said they will be happy with 27 because its more than if it went into foreclose. I think they need to get all funds that were buffered!
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