Asked by Dawn, 06901 • Sun Jul 31, 2011
The house I am referring to was being rented out to a family while the home was listed as foreclosed and belonging to the bank. The family was paying rent to the former landlord and claimed they did not know the home was under foreclosure. This circumstance ocurred with full knowledge of the realtor rep who was responsible for selling the property. If the realtor arranged for this family to move into a home that should have been offered to outside bidders first, is this a case of indirect discrimination? Are the actions of the realty rep unethical? The Department of Health was called by a family member and the family no longer lives there.
Real Estate in Stamford
Popular Categories in 06902
Email me when…
Success! Your email alert settings have been saved. Access all your email alerts in your My Trulia account anytime!