Pre foreclosure is not really a clear or properly stated term for a question! This site often awards "Best" answers where the responding party is "assuming" they know what the question intended. That's frustrating and promoting reckless industry jargon. Wikipedia will not even let you come close to this type of corresponding amongst parties.
So, correct me if I am wrong but;
1) after 60 Delinquent - borrowers receive a notice of intent. NOI
2) after 60 to 150 days - Notice of Default
3) after 150 Notice of Sale
4) after 21 days Sale date and let's assuming one week - cash for keys offer.
Nothing is set in stone here as to a lender postponing. It's after 180 days the property, If not sold at auction; it becomes a classified bank asset or REO.
My take is that at 60 days delinquent, TWO PAYMENTS, an asset is considered delinquent and the receivable considered impaired. That means it is potentially non collectable but prior to reserving pursuant to GAAP. Therefore it becomes a "classified" asset or "PRE RESERVE" non-current asset. At that time prior to a Notice of Default you have a true pre foreclosure. After the NOD you are in foreclosure.
The Notice of Intent period is brief and hell to gauge. That however is the best period of time for acting on a true Pre Foreclosure.
Nearly 25 years in banking and I never heard of a pre foreclosure outside of my explanation. Erick’s answer is probably most appropriate in that it is nearly impossible to know such a status unless you have access to a person’s credit report or servicer’s records. Both scenarios are unlawful. So my question here is – What are you all talking about?
http://www.borrowerhotline.com - Sat Sep 13 2008, 13:31