114 views

Julie Pearce

  • 1 Helpful Answer
  • 18 Answers
  • 5 Listings
Agent at Keller Williams Elite Partners
About:
I've been a licensed Realtor Associate since April 2006. This was a complete change in occupation for me - a new challenge! But over the past couple years, ... show more
Julie Pearce answered:
Hi Jose,
This would be a good question for a real estate attorney licensed in Florida. But the way I understand it, Florida is a state which developed its ownership laws based on the idea that a husband and wife are one entity in ownership. So, when a property is purchased after marriage by either husband or wife, or both, they have a "tenancy by the entireties" - a joint tenancy with rights of survivorship. The deed doesn't even have to state this tenancy because by being married, the estate is implied. If you were married before you make the purchase, you have the joint tenancy with rights of survivorship.

What this means is that you and your wife would have equal ownership of a property purchased here. If one of you died, the other would become the sole owner of the property. If you were divorced, or your marriage was annulled, the tenancy of the property would change. It would become a "tenancy in common", with each of you having a percentage of interest in the property - and the courts would decide it. If you had property here before you were married, it would be considered yours alone - but if you're married when you buy it, you are "one" - for better or worse!

Hope this helps -
Julie Pearce
Keller Williams Elite Partners
352-428-1205 - Thu Oct 15 2009, 14:21

Contact Julie Pearce

Julie Pearce is a member of Trulia Voices:

Get the inside scoop on your area and home buying and selling.
Ask and answer questions about real estate.
Build your profile and contact home buyers, sellers and agents.
Flag this profile Report this profile
 
Copyright © 2009 Trulia, Inc. All rights reserved.   |   Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity
Help us improve our service—send us feedback