you never know why people do what they do. Mybe it was from a person to a trust and to keep the trust from paying alot in document stamps, etc.. they sell it to themselves through the trust for less, or to let keep the tax value of the property down if the person whose name it is now under maybe homesteading it , to many factors to consider. Mainly I would think for tax purposes for sure though
David Leventhal http://www.Longboatkeyproperty.com
941-383-6411

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It's funny that you would ask this question.
The first poster is right, ask a Realtor to find out...of course, they will want to know why you want to know.
The truth is that there are different types of "transfers". Not all are FULL SALE.

The appraised value for tax purposes only is adjusted for FULL SALES.

Actually, one can not sell a property one owns BACK to oneself... they can refi, they can get a divorce, there could be a trust set up and many other things, but you can't sell real estate you already own BACK to yourself...

If you can be more specific about your question, I'd be happy to help you figure out what the situation is. . . but why does it matter? Did you want to buy it? Did you want to buy another property close by and think this affects the value? The answer to that is no....

You would probably need to look at the deed and figure out the type of ownership situation that it was under and what it was changed to. Perhaps he bought out another interest in the property. Refinanced etc. There could be alot of valid reasons for something like this to happen. Look at how many properties transfer for $1.00, does that devalue the neighbors also? You have to look beyond just the price and see if there were other concessions that were made.