would later be deeded to us. I then say that the sellers own laywer advised our attorney that the seller does NOT own the backyard. She cannot deed an association something she has no ownership of. Therefore it is misleading of an
agent to show picture of a yard, and when asked state that it will be a common area, when it is not owned by the seller. It would be as if i lived next to land owned by the state, and i fence it in and say it is the backyard to my house, and market the property to an individual stating that isthe case. In response about having an attorney: consulting an attorney can be costly, which is why in MA 93a consumer protection laws exist, so that an individual can begin proceedings and hopefully a settlement at no cost to themselves or fellow taxpayers. I appreciate your viewing and replying to these posts thanks again
However, in this instance, the seller DOES NOT OWN the backyard at all. So to advertise it, and when asked state how it will be shared seems deliberatley misleading.
When I hear "common area split among 3 units", it means the area is not deeded to the individual owners but is held "in common" by the association. However, it is quite common that there may be a policy of "exclusive use" to the owners, but that would be spelt out in the Condo docs.