On a Contract for Deed it is dependent on what the seller wants to do, he has no legal right to demand it. But then again he doesnt have to sell it to you either. Even with conventional financing you dont have to use the spouses credit if the lender does not require it. Just remember that someone is taking the risk of selling to you on Contract for Deed they probably want to minimize that risk. If there is any other questions or if you think it might be in your interest to get financing please feel free to contact me at sean@spectrafinancial.com
Sean Wait

Mrs Favis,

No, it is up to the seller. Some sellers don't even ask to see a credit report.

Bob Elliot

No. Just depends on what the sellers wants to use. Although if using a contract for deed, please consult an attorney and make sure you get title insurance or have the attorney check the title out for you.

Kim Eisen
Realtor since 1980

The seller in any type of real estate sale can ask for their own terms of financing proof but if your spouse is not part of the purchase, it wouldn't make sense to have him in the terms.
It's fairly common for one spouse to not be on the purchase agreement or the pre-approval of financing which would mean their credit (and buying power) are not consulted or figured in.
If only your credit is consulted, then you will need to qualify to purchase the home using your own income only.
-- Steve

Typically your credit is not used in a contract for deed situation. The seller may elect to run your credit to determine worthiness but that is not mandatory. I have run into a lot of sellers that will not run credit if you have a decent down payment. Also, if you are the only one buying on the contract for deed technically you would be needing only your credit if seller decides to run it. Like in your previous question though your wife would automatically be added to title.