Grehyn, if you were not on the note, and you have not claimed the deduction on your income tax...you would qualify as a single buyer. Also remember that in order for you to qualify only your income and credit will be considered (he cannot be involved in the transaction in any way).
As always it is a good idea to seek an advise of real estate lawyer or knowledgeable CPA....
everything best in your new home quest...
Bo in Yukon

This is a question that should certainly be directed to your tax-preparer, as real estate agents are not allowed to provide tax or legal advice. I advise you to seek counsel from a CPA. That said, I believe you will not qualify ... not because a co-signer home owner is involved, but because you were previously married when a home was owned and thus you, too, owned it. Guilty by association, so-to-speak :-)

Hi, Grehyn:

When asking a question like this, it's always good to go straight to "the horse's mouth" - in this case, the IRS. To check out frequently asked questions on this topic, you might want to see what the IRS says. This is the link for some of the questions: http://www.irs.gov/newsroom/article/0,,id=206294,00.html.

I hope that information will be of use to you.

Nope. If either person on the note has owned in the last three, it nullifies.